Alan in Paris writes:
I've been granted options on my company's stock that will vest in December. I want to protect the downside -- even to the point of not accepting any upside from here. If I could exercise my options today, I'd get 1,000 shares at $50. Because the stock now trades at $100, I'd take a $50,000 profit. I fear between now and December, though, the stock could go down to $50, leaving me with nothing. Could I buy out-of-the-money puts to stem some of the potential equity loss? What if I short the stock instead? Dr. Option responds: Why on earth would you think about hedging stock options when you live in Paris? Good grief, man. Eat! Drink! Paint! But if you insist... Let's start from square one. By the grace of your company, you own (or will own in December) a $50 call on 1,000 shares. Now your stock's in a $100 world so, as you've correctly pointed out, there's 50 points of intrinsic value in the call. You've earned it with sweat equity, meaning you've got a cost base of zero. You say you'll vest in December, but you don't specify an exercise/expiration date for the option. You seem to be saying you would exercise immediately upon vesting if the option's in the money, so I'll just assume vesting and exercise/expiration dates are coincidental. You're looking for a hedge against price risk. In other words, insurance. But you don't say how much you're willing to pay for it, nor how much "self-insurance" or deductible you're willing to accept. Those would be the same questions you'd address in any insurance-buying decision. A full hedge is established when a diametrically opposite position is undertaken to counterbalance the risks of an existing market stance. The simplest hedge, then, is the opposite of the existing position. That means the exact hedge for this position is actually short calls, struck at $50, on 1,000 shares. If we make fairly modest volatility and interest-rate assumptions, such a sale could rather handily bring in enough call premium to hedge the granted call's current intrinsic value. But that's not a good trade for you, mon ami Parisien. Since you don't own the underlying shares, and since your long call is contingent and held away, your broker would treat you as if you were writing naked calls. That would subject you to a pretty steep margin requirement. To be exact, at least $20,000, or 20% of the current value of the underlying shares. To boot, writing in-the-money calls subjects you to a greater risk of early assignment. And you can't afford that since you ain't got the shares. Zut alors! How can you get opposite price exposure to your existing position without selling calls? We gotta first ask a question here, "What's the yardstick by which we measure price risk?" Yep, it's delta, the rate of change in the option's price for every $1 move in the stock. Running your options grant through an options-pricing model would most likely generate a delta position of plus 1,000. Because your granted call is so deep in the money now, it behaves pricewise as if it were a long position in 1,000 shares. To be fully hedged (delta neutral), you'd need to establish an equivalent short (negative delta) position. In your question, you wonder if a short sale of the stock is a possible risk remedy. It would, in fact, give you just the sort of delta position you need today (minus 1,000) to become delta neutral. But it may not be what you want tomorrow. The delta of stock never changes; the delta of an option does. Those changes would create a hedge imbalance. There are a couple of very important considerations to keep in mind, though. First, this trade requires margin. Big margin. You'll have to put up equity of at least $50,000 initially. That's more equity than required for the short-call hedge. And if you couldn't do short calls, you certainly can't do short stock. You say you also pondered buying puts as a possible hedge. Let's consider using the closest out-of-the-money put struck at $95 for that. In our hypothetical world, with a stock at $100, we might find the December $95 put offered at 6 1/2. Buying puts in a 1:1 ratio to the "calls" granted by your company (10 puts equals 1,000 shares) would leave you still bullish. Your net position would be equivalent to owning about 660 shares. That's because the put delta is only minus 0.34 per share. So, you'd be only tempering your bullishness with this trade. Still, that may be OK. As you have no cost base in the granted call, a profit's generated as soon as the call is in the money. Then it's just a matter of ensuring that any potential put-premium losses don't swamp the call gains. And that, at present market levels, looks imminently doable. The potential payouts look like those depicted below.| 1:1 Put Position Expiration payouts | |||
| Stock price | P/L $50 call grant | P/L 10 $95 purchased puts | Net |
| 120 | $70,000 | -$6,500 | $63,500 |
| 110 | 60,000 | -6,500 | 53,500 |
| 100 | 50,000 | -6,500 | 43,500 |
| 90 | 40,000 | -1,500 | 38,500 |
| 80 | 30,000 | 8,500 | 38,500 |
| 70 | 20,000 | 18,500 | 38,500 |
| 60 | 10,000 | 28,500 | 38,500 |
| 50 | 0 | 38,500 | 38,500 |
| 40 | 0 | 48,500 | 48,500 |
| 30 | 0 | 58,500 | 58,500 |
| Delta Neutral Hedge Expiration payouts | |||
| Stock price | P/L $50 call grant | P/L 29 $95 purchased puts | Net |
| 120 | $70,000 | -$18,850 | $51,150 |
| 110 | 60,000 | -18,850 | 41,150 |
| 100 | 50,000 | -18,850 | 31,150 |
| 90 | 40,000 | -4,350 | 35,650 |
| 80 | 30,000 | 24,650 | 54,650 |
| 70 | 20,000 | 53,650 | 73,650 |
| 60 | 10,000 | 82,650 | 92,650 |
| 50 | 0 | 111,650 | 111,650 |
| 40 | 0 | 140,650 | 140,650 |
| 30 | 0 | 169,650 | 169,650 |
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